Re: The Ranting/Debate Thread
Right, ok, so, here we go. Nothing can be singled out for nazism. No single cause. Same for the Holocaust. There's nothing in all of history we can pick up and declare to be THE cause of the Holocaust, Hitler, and all that.
The main cause for the holocaust, on a pragmatical basis, would have probably been econimacal and political. The jew comunity has a tendency to be close and generally composed of middle/high bourgeoisie(i'm getting out of my knowledge of english, so i'm not sure if it really makes sense). Considering the strong nazionalistic orientation of nazism, the economic troubles of germany after WW1 and the bellic effort's enormous cost, a close comunity with a religious belief different from the majority of the population with considerable economical resources and generally not well considered by the people becomes the perfect target. This way you can gain popularity by creating an elitist feeling in the people and accumulate a considerable amount of both money and free manpower to produce weapons and vehicles without having to heavily tax the people, who were already heavily taxed by the other european countries already, you become a hero. This is were hitler's genious lies, evil indeed, but genious none the less.
Most people tend to stick to the official reasons, but we need to remember that rarely what is said is really meant in politics.
As for the origins idea, well. I think you'll find the links between fascism and the Roman Empire rather more tenuous than those between fascism and Nazism. Mussolini was very quick to point out how he was just like the Romans because that won him support, owing to Italian nostalgia for the "Good Old Days". Much like the Brits these days. Nazism however is an immediate and direct evolution from fascism. I think it should also be obvious that no nazism, no Hitler, no Holocaust.
So you can conceivably demonstrate the fascism, while not the sole factor responsible for the slaughter of millions of Jews, was certainly critical. I'd offer the non-Godwinesque comparison that the concept of communism led to the deaths of millions of Russians!
Yeah, fascism doesn't really have much in common with the roman empire, but it was being as a mean to exploit the feeling of the people, so it can still be considered a cause, if one wants to really start nitpicking, that was my point.
Let's remember that nazism acquires actual power a mere ten years after fascism and only really shares the means used to obtain power, nazism was focused on the race from the very beginning, while fascism's focus was the country, the foundamental ideology is different, that's why it shouldn't be mixed like it's the same thing. Let's not forget that a similar situation can be observed in the raise to power of communism in russia and napoleon's empire after the french revolution. The main problem with nazism and fascism is their contemporaneity and the alliance during the WW2, which tends to give most people the impression that they are the same thing.
As much as fascism could have given Hitler the idea on how to start his empire, it's such a small reason compared to the situation germany was in because of the winner of WW1 and is no way a determining factor, the fact mussolini had the idea a few years before hitler don't mean that hitler wouldn't still have done what he did, while if after WW1 germany wasn't completely tarnished there wouldn't have been as much gunpowder for hitler to use, if there wasn't a WW1 there would have probably been no problem at all, if you think about all the causes that co-operated to the raise of nazism you will see that fascism is not as important as you think it is.
Also along the lines of your reasoning, adolf hitler's father is more responsible than anyone else for the slaughter of milions of jews, since no Alois equals no Adolf, same could be said for the mother, the parent's parents, etc...
Oh, let's not forget god, no god, no jews, no slaughter.
I understand your logic, but it doesn't justify the use of the word fascism for something that is foundamental ideology of nazism, as a matter of fact fascism acquired antisemitism from nazism in 1938 when they signed their alliance, 16 years after coming to power.
Hm, well, actually I think it IS something to be surprised about. People all over the world EXIST under dictatorships, and have for hundreds, if not thousands of years. If it was just one country, I could dismiss it as a random event, but three in a row?
I'm still unsure, though, so over to you, Debate Thread.
Should the WikiLeaks fiasco be considered a Black Swan event, and is it responsible for the repeated series of political upheavals in recent times?
P
Well, it was a surprise in 1789 with the first french revolution that started a process that spread to almost all of europe, the recent uproar can still be considered an aftereffect, they just had a late start because they didn't find a valid enough reason to unite the people, the beast called people being what it is. I mean it's expected to happen at some point that poeple looking at others living better lives would want to have the same, they just need the right spark.
Now that you make me think more carefully about it, the spark might have been the wikileaks effect, releasing information on the economical status of certain countries, that's an interesting point you made there.
